We’ve had some really good back and forth in the prior articles about the SLT/LVT, so I’m gonna poke the hornet’s next one more time.

Rent, so much rent!!!

This time I’m taking aim at the claim from SLTers (and other economists) that a single land tax/land value tax is the “least bad” because it incurs no “deadweight loss.”

MASSIVE DISCLAIMER: I’m not an economist. My only formal exposure to economics was a AP micro in high school and 2 weeks of macro in college before I dropped the class. I’m prepared for somebody with knowledge in this subject matter to refute any and every premise/assertion/conclusion I make.

First, let’s define deadweight loss. In a broad sense, deadweight loss is a measure of certain inefficiencies caused by government intervention in a market. Focusing specifically on taxes, deadweight loss represents the benefit that would’ve been had by consumers in the perfect market that is foregone in the distorted market.

As a simple example, let’s say the perfect market would sell monocles for $1, and the government imposes a $3 luxury tax on monocles, raising their total cost to $4/monocle. There are a lot of people who would buy a monocle at $1, and a few glibertarians who would buy a monocle even at $4. Deadweight loss represents the economic benefit that the glibertarians who bought $4 monocles would have otherwise had with the $3 they ended up paying in tax.

Using a static model, it looks like this, pictographically:

I made a graph!!!1!1!!

Using this model, SLTers say that the SLT has no deadweight loss because there is a fixed supply of land (a vertical supply curve). You usually see a graph like this from them:

I've seen this one before

However, let’s think about what this means for a moment. It means that no matter the tax on the value of the land, the consumer does not lose economic benefit. This strikes me as incorrect. In fact, upon examining the above graph, it seems a bit… off. After looking at it for a bit, it appears that the demand curve has been moved in the no deadweight loss graph. It’s showing the equilibrium for a distorted market, not for a theoretical perfect market like in the top graph. Taking that into account here’s what the graph should look like (IMO):

What am I missing here???

Somebody please explain to me what I’m doing wrong here. When I, a lay person, am coming to a different conclusion than the likes of Milton Friedman, I’m worried that I’m missing something very simple.

However, just to hedge my argument a little bit, I think we need to re-examine this asymptotic economic model. Land is a somewhat unique object in that it cannot be produced. When looking at a supply curve, we’re more focused on production. Thinking about it for a moment, it seems really odd to say that, should the demand for land drop precipitously, land could go to at-or-near zero price. See, what I intuit is that some land isn’t marketable at a certain price. I think the vertical line is too simplistic and results in “technically right” answers that don’t reflect reality. The “not for sale” aspect isn’t being taken into account. Therefore, in adjusting the supply curve to reflect the marketable supply of land rather than the total supply, we get a graph that looks a bit more like the first one in this article:

Land for a penny!